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Re: [Q]Why are all classes rooted by <object>
Eric Gouriou wrote:
[snip]
> define generic \= (obj1, obj2) => (equal? :: <boolean>);
> (here <object> is only used implicitly, but it is still used)
>
Oh, I was quite unclear about how generics could be defined then. I
thought Obj1 and Obj2 could be required to be of the same (unknown)
concrete type. You're indicating otherwise (that it is ok to compare
<apple>'s and <orange>'s). If that is the case I apologize for asking the
question, and withdraw my question about why the type system has the common
root.
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