first class names

[Stéphane Payrard <address@hidden>]

On Fri, Aug 15, 2003 at 08:51:01PM -0400, Dan Sugalski wrote:
> At 8:11 PM +0200 8/15/03, Michael Sperber wrote:
> > >>>>> "Michael" == Michael Vanier <mvanier@cs.caltech.edu> writes:
> >
> >Michael> So why not have first-class names?
> >
> >Because it would destroy lexical scoping.
> 
> No it doesn't, it just requires a more interesting version of the 
> lexical scope. You get used to it.
> -- 
> Dan Sugalski 

Hum, can someone provide me with a definition of "first-class
names" or give a pointer to such a definition? Google
did let me down on that one.

Thx.

--
 stef